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MATURITA Z ANGLIČTINY
2013 - úroveň B2

Section II – Lang uage in Use (20 points)

This section of the test has three parts. To complete this section of the test, you will need approximately 45 minutes.



Part 1: Moving is a Process of Loss and Gain (10 points)

For questions 21–40, read the text below. Decide which word or phrase (A), (B), (C) or (D) best fits each space. There is an example at the beginning (00).
Príklad: ___00___ - (C)


Sasha Person, 38, her husband Greg, 37, and children Poppy, five, and Toby, three, moved to Melbourne, Australia ___00___ November 2011, shortly after the riots ___21___ happened close to their home in Enfield, London.
Greg is Australian and he always said they ___22___ move back to Australia when the time felt right. The riots, the economic downturn and the crime all helped them decide to ___23___ the risk. Now they live in a lovely detached house in a clean, beautiful city with ___24___ of wonderful festivals going on around them. However, Sasha ___25___ it very difficult to settle there.
There are times she feels ___26___ without her family and friends. Greg’s family live a 14-hour drive away, so it’s not ___27___ they are just around the corner to help. Simply ___28___ someone to babysit would make a huge dif ference.
After arriving in Australia, Sasha encountered many ___29___ problems. For one thing, the job skills she ___30___ up at an investment bank didn’t apply in Australia. From the start childcare ___31___ another issue. When Toby went to daycare in England ___32___ was one teacher for every five pupils, but over there the ___33___ is one to 15. Sasha felt Toby ___34___ looked after properly, so she had to take him out. In addition, Australian children start school later than Brits, so, as a result Poppy ___35___ her first year.
They ___36___ some great weekends, on the beach or at theme parks, but Sasha finds herself ___37___ little things, like quality sausages and bacon. ___38___ , she spent hours searching for cranberry jam.
There have been times when Sasha has felt so miserable that she ___39___ back home. She is trying to make a ___40___ of life in Australia.

00)

A) B) C) D)

21)

A) B) C) D)

22)

A) B) C) D)

23)

A) B) C) D)

24)

A) B) C) D)

25)

A) B) C) D)

26)

A) B) C) D)

27)

A) B) C) D)

28)

A) B) C) D)

29)

A) B) C) D)

30)

A) B) C) D)

31)

A) B) C) D)

32)

A) B) C) D)

33)

A) B) C) D)

34)

A) B) C) D)

35)

A) B) C) D)

36)

A) B) C) D)

37)

A) B) C) D)

38)

A) B) C) D)

39)

A) B) C) D)

40)

A) B) C) D)


Part 2: The Women of the Year (10 points)

For questions 41–50, read the text below. Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (00).


Example: ___00___ - lawyers
Baroness Helena Kennedy QC is one of the foremost human rights   law
and the President of the Women of the Year Lunch and Awards. In her career,
she’s fought to make the system more of the realities of women’s legalize
lives. The law now has changed but women have still got a long significant
way to go. Women of the Year is an of that fight, keeping women and extend
their on the agenda, and showing what they can do if they put their achieve
minds to it.
The thing about the lunch is that it brings together such an amaze
Thanks to an cross-section of women, recognising the exceptional in all forms – credible
whether it’s high-achievers succeeding in a very male world, or those who
might call themselves ordinary women, who by their to their commit
community make a huge difference to the lives of the others.
Some of the guests are , and on the television every night, and glamour
some work quietly to hold their communities together by startin g a soup kitchen.
Some have made extraordinary contributions to the movement for the rights of
the ; some have fostered more children than you can count. No woman able
at that lunch has bought a ticket – every single one deserves t o be there.
The nomination process involves a council with women from all over the country
who put out the message, connect to local women’s organisations, and scan
local newspapers for stories. inspire

Part 3: Danish Delights (10 points)

For questions 51–60, read the text below. Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (00).


Example: ___00___ - not
Denmark is easy to get to, with a wide choice of flights as well as ferries. The Danes themselves only seem to all speak English, but are well-mannered and hospi table, too.
With its museums and galleries, architecture, cool bars and hot restaurants, Copenhagen been slowly working its way up the hit parade of city breaks. Its efficient transportation makes it so easy for a weekend. For example, last summer in less an hour after their flight touched down, Lindsay Nicholson and her friend checking in to their hotel, the Kong Arthur.
Copenhagen is also a city that will certainly appeal . a broad spectrum of interests. Food fans, for example, will want to visit Noma, ranked for three years running the best restaurant in the world – but you’ll need to book weeks ahead and warn your bank manager. , there are more affordable alternatives. Some people suggest combining visit to the enchanting Tivoli, part-funfair, part-garden, part-fairytale, with traditional Danish dishes at The Brothers Price, housed in a huge conservatory.
Denmark, of course, is synonymous design, best seen in the Kunstindustrimuseet and the smaller Danish Design Centre. Visitors should take the train to Humlebaek and head for Louisiana, one of the most interesting modern art museums in the world modern art is their priority. It’s also spectacularly located in gardens overlooking sea with Sweden on the horizon.

This is the end of Section II.



Section III – Reading (20 points)

This section of the test has three parts. To complete this section of the test, you will need approximately 45 minutes.



Part 1: The Wartime Wedding (7 points)

Read the following story. For questions 61–67, decide which of the sentences (A)–(J) below the text best fits into each of the numbered gaps in the article. There are three extra sentences which do not fit any of the gaps.


I’ll never forget seeing Alan walk past the shop where I worked, staring at his reflection in the window. ___61___ So, when he came into the store to ask me for a date, I didn’t give him the time of day.
But Alan was stubborn. He simply walked around the block and asked me again! ___62___ I later found out it was me he’d been staring at through the window. We married four years later when I was 20.
Organising and funding a wedding during WW II wasn’t easy. ___63___ Believing in the tradition of having something old, new, borrowed and blue, I borrowed a cream satin gown from my Aunt Bessie – it counted as something old too! Everybody wanted to help me out! I did buy a new veil and we had glass bluebirds on top of our traditional fruit wedding cake. ___64___
During the war there was not much fabric available. ___65___ My mother, Kathleen, put a bridesmaid’s dress together with leftover material. My floral arrangement was made of flowers picked from the same tree Alan used to give my mum a bouquet when we first started dating.
We married in a church in Sydney. My brother-in-law, George, took me to the altar as my father had died when I was three. ___66___ Guests bought us modest gifts because times were tight and Mum prepared a traditional wedding breakfast fro m nothing.
Our first dance was to music from a record player – then Alan and I caught a train to Queensland. ___67___ We had been married for 64 years before Alan died. He always said the best decision of his life was walking around the block and asking me for that first date a second time.

A) After that we held a reception for several people at Mum’ s home nearby.
B) It was specially made for me by a relative.
C) Fortunately, Mum managed to buy a dress for me.
D) We were going to honeymoon there.
E) When I finally agreed he couldn’t believe it.
F) Although we didn’t have money to spare, we did our best.
G) However, Alan came in and asked me for a date.
H) Many of our guests therefore made their outfits from curtains.
I) Unimpressed, I’d sighed to myself that he must really admire himself.
J) In reality, it wasn’t possible.




61) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)
62) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)
63) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)
64) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)
65) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)
66) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)
67) A) B) C) D) E) F) G) H) I) J)


Part 2: Between Birth and the World Championship Match (6 points)

Garry Kasparov is generally regarded as the greatest chess player ever. He was the 13th world champion. Read the text and decide whether the statements 68–73 are true (A) or false (B). For each statement also write the letter (a)–(e) of the paragraph in which you found the evidence for your answer.


(a) Garry Kasparov was born Garik Kimovich Weinstein in 1963 in Baku to an Armenian mother and Russian Jewish father. He first began the serious study of chess after he came across a chess problem set up by his parents and proposed a solution. His father died of leukemia when he was seven years old. At the age of twelve, he adopted his mother’s Armenian surname.
(b) From the age of 7, Kasparov attended the Young Pioneer Palace in Baku and, at 10, began training at Mikhail Botvinnik’s chess school. At the age of 13, Kasparov won the Soviet Junior Championship in Tbilisi in 1976, scoring 7 points out of 9. He repeated the triumph the following year, winning with a score of 8 ½ out of 9. He was being trained by Alexander Shakarov during this time.
(c) In 1978, Kasparov participated in the Sokolsky Memorial tournament in Minsk. He had been invited as an exception but took first place and became a chess master. Kasparov has repeatedly said that this event was a turning point in his life – to play chess professionally. He has also said that after the victory, he thought he had a very good shot at the World Championship. After several other successes, he won the World Junior Chess Championship in Dortmund, West Germany in 1980.
(d) After this, Kasparov wanted to challenge World Champion Anatoly Karpov, but first he had to qualify in the Candidates Tournament. He defeated the exceptionally tough Alexander Beliavsky in his first match of the tournament. His next match, against Viktor Korchnoi, due to be played in Pasadena, California, was threatened by politics. Korchnoi had fled the Soviet Union in the late 1970s, and at that time was the strongest non-Soviet player.
(e) Various political manoeuvres prevented Kasparov from playing Korchnoi, and Kasparov gave up the match. However, Korchnoi allowed the match to be played in London, and Kasparov won. His final Candidates match was against Vassily Smyslov. Smyslov had been the 7th World Champion in 1957, but later years saw his willingness to fight for wins greatly diminished. Kasparov won the match 4 – 0. He had finally earned the right to challenge Karpov for the title.

68) Kasparov was undefeated in the final Candidates match.

A)
B)
Which of the paragraphs supports your answer?

69) Garry’s surname was changed before his father’s death.

A)
B)
Which of the paragraphs supports your answer?

70) Kasparov considered the Minsk tournament as a milestone in his career.

A)
B)
Which of the paragraphs supports your answer?

71) The match in California was threatened because Korchnoi was a Soviet refugee.

A)
B)
Which of the paragraphs supports your answer?

72) While Shakarov was training him, Kasparov won only one junior championship.

A)
B)
Which of the paragraphs supports your answer?

73) Beliavsky was the first to be overcome on Kasparov’s way to challenge Karpov.

A)
B)
Which of the paragraphs supports your answer?

Part 3: A Few Facts about Iceland (7 points)

Read the text about Iceland. Complete the sentences 74 – 80 below, using the information from the text. Write one or two words in your answers as indicated. The sentences do not follow in the same order as the information appears in the text. You may use words that do not appear in the text.


The official language is Icelandic, which is considered a Nordic language. It has not changed much from the first settlers of Iceland. Danish and English are mandatory languages to learn, and the literacy rate is over 99 %, which is the highest percentage in the world. Many people are known by their first names, as opposed to their surnames; for example, Horoson means the son of Horo; this can make it difficult to look someone up in the phonebook.
The majority of Icelanders are of Lutheran faith, although there are other believers throughout the region, such as Catholics, Mormons, Baptists as well as Muslims.
Iceland is a republic, with a written constitution and a parliamentary government. The head of state is the president, who is elected by popular vote and serves a term of four years. The leader of the parliamentary government is the prime minister.
Because it is an Atlantic island, one of the Iceland’s food staples is fish; other popular food includes lamb, cured meat and dairy products. Various types of meat will always be found in buffets and private homes alike.
There is a popular saying in Iceland, “If you don’t like the weather, just wait five minutes.” The weather can vary greatly due to its proximity to the ocean. Northern Iceland summer temperatures don’t get much warmer than its winter temperatures; Southern Iceland can get considerably warmer, sometimes reaching as much as 30 degrees Celsius.
The main exports are marine products, aluminum, machinery, software and woollen goods. Most of the exports go to the European Union, Japan and the Uni ted States.

74) Besides fish and dairy products, Icelanders like to eat . (1 word)


75) Apart from Icelandic, and are required in schools. (2 words)


76) One term of lasts four years. (1 word)


77) One of the main importers from Iceland is . (1 word)


78) Less than 1 per cent of Icelanders are . (1 word)


79) From the religious point of view, most Icelanders are . (1 word)


80) The weather changes very often and this is reflected in a commonly known . (1 word)




TIMMER TIMMER